what the **** !!
all these years, i thought krukenberg's tumor spreads by seeding .. but i was wrong !..blame the damn books( which incorporate little research in their text)..
anyways, it has hematological spread...which makes complete sense , because peritonium does'nt have cancer traces... (which in this case it should have)
but, why it selectively grows in the ovaries ??
P.S. Krukenberg's tumor as the first clinical manifestation of fibrolamellar hepatocarcinoma
P.P.S "There is some debate over the exact mechanism of metastasis of the tumour cells from the stomach, appendix or colon to the ovaries; classically it was thought that direct seeding across the abdominal cavity accounted for the spread of this tumor, but recently some researchers have suggested that lymphatic (i.e. through the lymph nodes), or haematogenous (i.e. through the blood) spread is more likely, as most of these tumours are found on the inside of the ovaries. Proponents of this theory cite the fact that metastases are never found in the omentum (the fatty apron which envelops the organs of the abdomen and lies between the stomach and ovaries), and that the tumor cells are found within the ovary and not growing inwards. However, this remains a controversy, as cases in Hong Kong always showed omental spread and peritoneal seedlings in patients with Krukenberg tumours.
Although a Krukenberg tumor is most commonly a metastasis from a gastric cancer (usually an adenocarcinoma), this is not always the case. Other tumours of the gastrointestinal tract (including, significantly, colon cancer) have been known to cause Krukenberg tumours, and recent case-reports of Krukenberg tumors originating from tumors of the tip of the appendix have appeared in the medical literature."
- taken from wikianswers.